ISTQB questions
Q1 A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called:
Q1 A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called:
a)
an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
Q2
Regression testing should be performed:
v)
every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says
a)
v & w are true, x, y & z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x, y & z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x, y & z are false
Q3
IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except
a)
test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test specifications
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test specifications
Q4
When should testing be stopped?
a)
when all the planned tests have been run
b) when time has run out
c) when all faults have been fixed correctly
d) it depends on the risks for the system being tested
b) when time has run out
c) when all faults have been fixed correctly
d) it depends on the risks for the system being tested
Q5
Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999
inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests
for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries?
a)
1000, 50000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 99999
d) 10000, 99999, 100000
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 99999
d) 10000, 99999, 100000
Q6
Consider the following statements about early test design:
i.
early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design normally takes more effort
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design normally takes more effort
a)
i, iii & iv are true; ii & v are false
b) iii & iv are true; i, ii & v are false
c) i, iii, iv & v are true; ii is false
d) i & ii are true; iii, iv & v are false
b) iii & iv are true; i, ii & v are false
c) i, iii, iv & v are true; ii is false
d) i & ii are true; iii, iv & v are false
Q7
Non-functional system testing includes:
a)
testing to see where the system does not function correctly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system function using only the software required for that function
d) testing for functions that should not exist
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system function using only the software required for that function
d) testing for functions that should not exist
Q8
Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management?
a)
auditing conformance to ISO 9000
b) status accounting of configuration items
c) identification of test versions
d) controlled library access
b) status accounting of configuration items
c) identification of test versions
d) controlled library access
Q9
Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for
integration testing in the small?
a)
to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when, and how many at once
d) to specify how the software should be divided into modules
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when, and how many at once
d) to specify how the software should be divided into modules
Q10
What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?
a)
to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to determine when to stop testing
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to determine when to stop testing
Q11
Consider the following statements:
i.
an incident may be closed without being fixed.
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation.
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing.
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments.
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation.
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing.
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments.
a)
ii is true, i, iii and iv are false
b) i is true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i and iv are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii and iv are false
b) i is true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i and iv are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii and iv are false
Q12
Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number of
test cases required for full statement and branch coverage?
Read p
Read q
IF p+q > 100 THEN
Print “Large”a
ENDIF
IF p > 50 THEN
Print “p Large”
ENDIF
Read q
IF p+q > 100 THEN
Print “Large”a
ENDIF
IF p > 50 THEN
Print “p Large”
ENDIF
a)
1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
Q13
Consider the following statements:
i.
100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
a)
ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
Q14
Functional system testing is:
a)
testing that the system functions with other systems
b) testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d) testing the system performs functions within specified response times
b) testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d) testing the system performs functions within specified response times
Q15
Incidents would not be raised against:
a)
requirements
b) documentation
c) test cases
d) improvements suggested by users
b) documentation
c) test cases
d) improvements suggested by users
Q16
Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
a)
operating systems
b) test documentation
c) live data
d) user requirement documents
b) test documentation
c) live data
d) user requirement documents
Q17
Maintenance testing is:
a)
updating tests when the software has changed
b) testing a released system that has been changed
c) testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
d) testing to maintain business advantage
b) testing a released system that has been changed
c) testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
d) testing to maintain business advantage
Q18
What can static analysis NOT find?
a)
the use of a variable before it has been defined
b) unreachable (“dead”) code
c) memory leaks
d) array bound violations
b) unreachable (“dead”) code
c) memory leaks
d) array bound violations
Q19
Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
a)
state transition testing
b) LCSAJ
c) syntax testing
d) boundary value analysis
b) LCSAJ
c) syntax testing
d) boundary value analysis
Q20
Beta testing is:
a)
performed by customers at their own site
b) performed by customers at the software developer’s site
c) performed by an Independent Test Team
d) performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
b) performed by customers at the software developer’s site
c) performed by an Independent Test Team
d) performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
Q21
Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by
developers, and which by an independent system test team?
i.
static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis
a)
developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii and iii
b) developers would typically use i and iii; test team ii and iv
c) developers would typically use ii and iv; test team i and iii
d) developers would typically use i, iii and iv; test team ii
b) developers would typically use i and iii; test team ii and iv
c) developers would typically use ii and iv; test team i and iii
d) developers would typically use i, iii and iv; test team ii
Q22
The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a)
finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing from a business perspective
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing from a business perspective
Q23
Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE?
a)
black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement
technique
b) white box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
b) white box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
------------
Q24
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a)
inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
Q25
A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the
following, EXCEPT:
a)
calculating expected outputs
b) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
c) recording test inputs
d) reading test values from a data file
b) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
c) recording test inputs
d) reading test values from a data file
Q26
The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:
a)
re-testing ensures the original fault has been removed; regression
testing looks for unexpected side-effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side-effects; regression testing ensures the original fault has been removed
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing is done by developers; regression testing is done by independent testers
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side-effects; regression testing ensures the original fault has been removed
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing is done by developers; regression testing is done by independent testers
Q27
Expected results are:
a)
only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) most useful when specified in advance
d) derived from the code
b) only used in component testing
c) most useful when specified in advance
d) derived from the code
Q28
What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics:
IP
a)
walkthrough
b) inspection
c) management review
d) post project review
b) inspection
c) management review
d) post project review
Q29
Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
a)
component testing
b) non-functional system testing
c) user acceptance testing
d) maintenance testing
b) non-functional system testing
c) user acceptance testing
d) maintenance testing
Q30
What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?
a)
setting up forms and databases
b) analyzing metrics and improving processes
c) writing the documents to be inspected
d) time spent on the document outside the meeting
b) analyzing metrics and improving processes
c) writing the documents to be inspected
d) time spent on the document outside the meeting
Q31
Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:
a)
to find faults in the software
b) to prove that the software has no faults
c) to give confidence in the software
d) to find performance problems
b) to prove that the software has no faults
c) to give confidence in the software
d) to find performance problems
Q32
Which expression best matches the following characteristics of the review
processes:
1.
led by the author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a moderator or leader
5. uses entry and exit criteria
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a moderator or leader
5. uses entry and exit criteria
s)
inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough
a)
s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
b) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u= 2, v = 3
b) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u= 2, v = 3
Q33
Which of the following is NOT part of system testing?
a)
business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) usability testing
d) top-down integration testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) usability testing
d) top-down integration testing
Q34
Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?
a)
expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
d) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
d) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
Q35
The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a)
ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS 7925-1
c) ANSI/IEEE 829
d) ANSI/IEEE 729
b) BS 7925-1
c) ANSI/IEEE 829
d) ANSI/IEEE 729
Q36
The cost of fixing a fault:
a)
is not important
b) increases the later a fault is found
c) decreases the later a fault is found
d) can never be determined
b) increases the later a fault is found
c) decreases the later a fault is found
d) can never be determined
Q37
Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test
Documentation Standard?
a)
what is not to be tested
b) test environment properties
c) quality plans
d) schedules and deadlines
b) test environment properties
c) quality plans
d) schedules and deadlines
Q38
Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing?
a)
no, because they apply to development documentation
b) no, because they are normally applied before testing
c) yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
d) yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities
b) no, because they are normally applied before testing
c) yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
d) yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities
Q39
Which of the following is not part of performance testing?
a)
measuring response times
b) recovery testing
c) simulating many users
d) generating many transactions
b) recovery testing
c) simulating many users
d) generating many transactions
Q40
Error guessing is best used:
a)
after more formal techniques have been applied
b) as the first approach to deriving test cases
c) by inexperienced testers
d) after the system has gone live
b) as the first approach to deriving test cases
c) by inexperienced testers
d) after the system has gone live
nswers to all
above questions:
Question Answer
1 C
2 C
3 D
4 D
5 C
6 A
7 B
8 A
9 C
10 D
11 B
12 B
13 D
14 C
15 D
16 C
17 B
18 C
19 B
20 A
21 A
22 D
23 A
24 D
25 A
26 A
27 C
28 B
29 D
30 C
31 B
32 A
33 D
34 A
35 B
36 B
37 C
38 C
39 B
40 A
1 C
2 C
3 D
4 D
5 C
6 A
7 B
8 A
9 C
10 D
11 B
12 B
13 D
14 C
15 D
16 C
17 B
18 C
19 B
20 A
21 A
22 D
23 A
24 D
25 A
26 A
27 C
28 B
29 D
30 C
31 B
32 A
33 D
34 A
35 B
36 B
37 C
38 C
39 B
40 A
Questions
1
We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests in different environments.
d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.
a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests in different environments.
d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.
2
Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?
a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) User acceptance testing
a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) User acceptance testing
3
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.
a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.
4
Which of the following requirements is testable?
a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The system shall be built to be portable.
a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The system shall be built to be portable.
5
Analise the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: “What type
of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF
Now decide the
minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
6
Error guessing:
a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and should not be used.
a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and should not be used.
7
Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
8
In prioritizing what to test, the most important objective is to:
a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test coverage.
d) test whatever is easiest to test.
a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test coverage.
d) test whatever is easiest to test.
9
Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity
descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?
v – test control
w – test monitoring
x – test estimation
y – incident management
z – configuration control
v – test control
w – test monitoring
x – test estimation
y – incident management
z – configuration control
1 –
calculation of required test resources
2 – maintenance of record of test results
3 – re-
2 – maintenance of record of test results
3 – re-
allocation of
resources when tests overrun
4 – report on deviation from test plan
5 – tracking of anomalous test results
4 – report on deviation from test plan
5 – tracking of anomalous test results
a)
v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
10
Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?
a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.
a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.
11
Which of the following is false?
a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d) An incident can be raised against documentation.
12
Enough testing has been performed when:
a) time runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more faults are found.
d) the users won’t find any serious faults.
a) time runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more faults are found.
d) the users won’t find any serious faults.
13
Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
14
Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?
a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing
d) modified condition/decision coverage
a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing
d) modified condition/decision coverage
15
Which of the following is false?
a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.
a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.
16
Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT
correct?
a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of user behavior.
a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of user behavior.
17
How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) a & b
a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) a & b
18
Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the verification of designs.
a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the verification of designs.
19
The oracle assumption:
a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.,
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.,
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
20
Which of the following characterizes the cost of faults?
a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.
a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.
21
Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d) To prove that the software is correct.
a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d) To prove that the software is correct.
22
Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing
a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing
23
Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule
a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule
24
Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the
use of CAST?
a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test planning
a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test planning
25
Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing
a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing
26
Data flow analysis studies:
a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
0c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.
a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
0c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.
27
In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d) £28000
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d) £28000
28
An important benefit of code inspections is that they:
a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b) can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c) can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d) are cheap to perform.
a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b) can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c) can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d) are cheap to perform.
29
Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User
Acceptance Test scripts?
a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements
d) System specification
a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements
d) System specification
30
What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.
a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.
31
Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in
the life cycle?
a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.
a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.
32
Integration testing in the small:
a) tests the individual components that have been developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses components that form part of the live system.
d) tests interfaces to other systems.
a) tests the individual components that have been developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses components that form part of the live system.
d) tests interfaces to other systems.
33
Static analysis is best described as:
a) the analysis of batch programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of program code.
d) the use of black box testing.
a) the analysis of batch programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of program code.
d) the use of black box testing.
34
Alpha testing is:
a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d) pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.
a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d) pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.
35
A failure is:
a) found in the software; the result of an error.
b) departure from specified behavior.
c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.
a) found in the software; the result of an error.
b) departure from specified behavior.
c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.
36
In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000
37
The most important thing about early test design is that it:
a) makes test preparation easier.
b) means inspections are not required.
c) can prevent fault multiplication.
d) will find all faults.
a) makes test preparation easier.
b) means inspections are not required.
c) can prevent fault multiplication.
d) will find all faults.
38
Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
39
Test cases are designed during:
a) test recording.
b) test planning.
c) test configuration.
d) test specification.
a) test recording.
b) test planning.
c) test configuration.
d) test specification.
40
A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.
a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.
1 A
2 A
3 D
4 C
5 A
6 A
7 C
8 B
9 C
10 D
11 A
12 B
13 A
14 C
15 B
16 B
17 D
18 D
19 B
20 A
21 D
22 A
23 B
24 C
25 D
26 C
27 C
28 A
29 C
30 D
31 C
32 B
33 C
34 C
35 B
36 D
37 C
38 D
39 D
40 B
2 A
3 D
4 C
5 A
6 A
7 C
8 B
9 C
10 D
11 A
12 B
13 A
14 C
15 B
16 B
17 D
18 D
19 B
20 A
21 D
22 A
23 B
24 C
25 D
26 C
27 C
28 A
29 C
30 D
31 C
32 B
33 C
34 C
35 B
36 D
37 C
38 D
39 D
40 B
1. Designing the
test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools
are a part of which phase
a) Test
Implementation and execution
b) Test Analysis and Design
c) Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting
d) Test Closure Activities
b) Test Analysis and Design
c) Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting
d) Test Closure Activities
Evaluating the
options:
a) Option a: as the name suggests these activities are part of the actual implementation cycle. So do not fall under set
b) Option b: Analysis and design activities come before implementation. The test environment set-up, identifying any required infrastructure and tools are part of this activity.
c) Option c: These are post implementation activities
d) Option d: These are related to closing activities. This is the last activity.
a) Option a: as the name suggests these activities are part of the actual implementation cycle. So do not fall under set
b) Option b: Analysis and design activities come before implementation. The test environment set-up, identifying any required infrastructure and tools are part of this activity.
c) Option c: These are post implementation activities
d) Option d: These are related to closing activities. This is the last activity.
So, the answer
is ‘B’
2. Test Implementation
and execution has which of the following major tasks?
i. Developing and
prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and
optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
a) i,ii,iii are
true and iv is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
Evaluating the
options:
Let’s follow a different approach in this case. As can be seen from the above options, determining the exit criteria is definitely not a part of test implementation and execution. So choose the options where (iv) is false. This filters out ‘b’ and ‘d’.
Let’s follow a different approach in this case. As can be seen from the above options, determining the exit criteria is definitely not a part of test implementation and execution. So choose the options where (iv) is false. This filters out ‘b’ and ‘d’.
We need to select only from ‘a’ and ‘c’.
We only need to analyze option (iii) as (i) and (ii) are marked as true in both
the cases. Verification of the test environment is part of the implementation
activity. Hence option (iii) is true. This leaves the only option as ‘a’.
So, the answer
is ‘A’
3. A Test Plan
Outline contains which of the following:-
i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities
a) I,ii,iii are
true and iv is false
b) i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
c) ii,iii are true and i and iv are false
d) i,ii are false and iii , iv are true
b) i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
c) ii,iii are true and i and iv are false
d) i,ii are false and iii , iv are true
Evaluating the
options:
Let’s use the approach given in question no. 2. Test scripts are not part of the test plan (this must be clear). So choose the options where (ii) is false. So we end up selecting ‘b’ and ‘d’. Now evaluate the option (i), as option (iii) and (iv) are already given as true in both the cases. Test items are part of the test plan. Test items are the modules or features which will be tested and these will be part of the test plan.
Let’s use the approach given in question no. 2. Test scripts are not part of the test plan (this must be clear). So choose the options where (ii) is false. So we end up selecting ‘b’ and ‘d’. Now evaluate the option (i), as option (iii) and (iv) are already given as true in both the cases. Test items are part of the test plan. Test items are the modules or features which will be tested and these will be part of the test plan.
So, the answer
is ‘B’
4. One of the
fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in the range
of 18 to 25. Identify the invalid Equivalence class
a) 17
b) 19
c) 24
d) 21
a) 17
b) 19
c) 24
d) 21
Evaluating the
options:
In this case, first we should identify valid and invalid equivalence classes.
In this case, first we should identify valid and invalid equivalence classes.
Invalid Class |
Valid Class | Invalid Class
Below 18 | 18 to 25 | 26 and above
Below 18 | 18 to 25 | 26 and above
Option ‘a’ falls under invalid class.
Options ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ fall under valid class.
So, the answer
is ‘A’
5. In an
Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks in order to clear the
exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalence
values if the student clears the exam.
a) 22,23,26
b) 21,39,40
c) 29,30,31
d) 0,15,22
b) 21,39,40
c) 29,30,31
d) 0,15,22
Evaluating the
options:
Let’s use the approach given in question 4. Identify valid and invalid equivalence classes.
Let’s use the approach given in question 4. Identify valid and invalid equivalence classes.
Invalid Class |
Valid Class | Invalid Class
Below 24 | 24 to 40 | 41 and above
Below 24 | 24 to 40 | 41 and above
The question is to identify valid
equivalence values. So all the values must be from ‘Valid class’ only.
a) Option a: all
the values are not from valid class
b) Option b: all the values are not from valid class
c) Option c: all the values are from valid class
d) Option d: all the values are not from valid class
b) Option b: all the values are not from valid class
c) Option c: all the values are from valid class
d) Option d: all the values are not from valid class
So, the answer
is ‘C’
6. Which of the
following statements regarding static testing is false:
a) static testing
requires the running of tests through the code
b) static testing includes desk checking
c) static testing includes techniques such as reviews and inspections
d) static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity
b) static testing includes desk checking
c) static testing includes techniques such as reviews and inspections
d) static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity
Evaluating the
options:
a) Option a: is wrong. Static testing has nothing to do with code
b) Option b: correct, static testing does include desk checking
c) Option c: correct, it includes reviews and inspections
d) Option d: correct, it can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity
a) Option a: is wrong. Static testing has nothing to do with code
b) Option b: correct, static testing does include desk checking
c) Option c: correct, it includes reviews and inspections
d) Option d: correct, it can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity
So, the answer
is ‘A’
7. Verification
involves which of the following:-
i. Helps to check the Quality of the built product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
i. Helps to check the Quality of the built product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
------------
a) Options
i,ii,iii,iv are true.
b) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
d) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.
b) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
d) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.
Evaluating the
options:
a) Option a: The quality of the product can be checked only after building it.
Verification is a cycle before completing the product.
b) Option b: Verification checks that we have built the right product.
c) Option c: it does not help in developing the product
d) Option d: it does not involve monitory activities.
a) Option a: The quality of the product can be checked only after building it.
Verification is a cycle before completing the product.
b) Option b: Verification checks that we have built the right product.
c) Option c: it does not help in developing the product
d) Option d: it does not involve monitory activities.
So, the answer
is ‘B’
8. Component
Testing is also called as :-
i. Unit Testing
ii. Program Testing
iii. Module Testing
iv. System Component Testing .
i. Unit Testing
ii. Program Testing
iii. Module Testing
iv. System Component Testing .
a) i,ii,iii are
true and iv is false
b) i,ii,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
d) all of above is true
b) i,ii,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
d) all of above is true
Evaluating the
options:
a) Option a: correct, component testing is also called as unit testing
b) Option b: not sure (but as all the options indicate this as true, we can conclude that Program testing is also called as unit testing)
c) Option c: correct, component testing is also called as module testing
d) Option d: wrong. System component testing comes under system testing.
a) Option a: correct, component testing is also called as unit testing
b) Option b: not sure (but as all the options indicate this as true, we can conclude that Program testing is also called as unit testing)
c) Option c: correct, component testing is also called as module testing
d) Option d: wrong. System component testing comes under system testing.
So, the answer
is ‘A’
9. Link Testing
is also called as :
a) Component Integration testing
b) Component System Testing
c) Component Sub System Testing
d) Maintenance testing
a) Component Integration testing
b) Component System Testing
c) Component Sub System Testing
d) Maintenance testing
Evaluating the
options:
As the name suggests, this testing is performed by linking (say modules). Now if
we look at the options, only option ‘a’ is performed by linking or integrating
modules/components.
As the name suggests, this testing is performed by linking (say modules). Now if
we look at the options, only option ‘a’ is performed by linking or integrating
modules/components.
So, the answer
is ‘A’
10.
What is the
expected result for each of the following test cases?
A.TC1: Anand is a 32 year old married, residing in Kolkatta.
B.TC3: Attapattu is a 65 year old married person, residing in Colombo.
a) A – Issue membership, 10% discount, B–Issue membership, offer no discount. B
b) A – Don’t Issue membership, B – Don’t offer discount. C
c) A – Issue membership, no discount, B – Don’t Issue membership.
d) A – Issue membership, no discount, B- Issue membership with 10% discount.
A.TC1: Anand is a 32 year old married, residing in Kolkatta.
B.TC3: Attapattu is a 65 year old married person, residing in Colombo.
a) A – Issue membership, 10% discount, B–Issue membership, offer no discount. B
b) A – Don’t Issue membership, B – Don’t offer discount. C
c) A – Issue membership, no discount, B – Don’t Issue membership.
d) A – Issue membership, no discount, B- Issue membership with 10% discount.
Evaluating the
options:
Explanation:
For TC1: follow the path in green color
(The person is Indian resident, so select only ‘True’ options.
The person is aged between 18-55, so select only ‘True’
The person is a married, so again select only ‘True’
For this person, the actions under ‘Rule 4’ will be applied. That is, issue membership and no discount)
For TC3: follow
the path in blue color
(The person is not Indian resident, so select only ‘False’ (under Rule 1)
The person is not aged between 18-55. No need to select any path, as it is written “Don’t care”.
The person is married. No need to select any path, as it is written “Don’t care”.
For this person, the actions under ‘Rule1’ will be applied, That is, Don’t issue membership and no discount.)
(The person is not Indian resident, so select only ‘False’ (under Rule 1)
The person is not aged between 18-55. No need to select any path, as it is written “Don’t care”.
The person is married. No need to select any path, as it is written “Don’t care”.
For this person, the actions under ‘Rule1’ will be applied, That is, Don’t issue membership and no discount.)
So, the answer
is ‘C’
Note: The answers are based on writers own experience and judgment and
may not be 100% correct. If you feel any correction is required please discuss
in comments below.
1.Software
testing activities should start
a. as soon as the
code is written
b. during the design stage
c. when the requirements have been formally documented
d. as soon as possible in the development life cycle
b. during the design stage
c. when the requirements have been formally documented
d. as soon as possible in the development life cycle
2.Faults found by
users are due to:
a. Poor quality
software
b. Poor software and poor testing
c. bad luck
d. insufficient time for testing
b. Poor software and poor testing
c. bad luck
d. insufficient time for testing
3.What is the main
reason for testing software before releasing it?
a. to show that
system will work after release
b. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
c. to find as many bugs as possible before release
d. to give information for a risk based decision about release
b. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
c. to find as many bugs as possible before release
d. to give information for a risk based decision about release
4. which of the
following statements is not true
a. performance
testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole
system
b. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test
c. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)
d. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible
b. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test
c. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)
d. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible
5. When reporting
faults found to developers, testers should be:
a. as polite,
constructive and helpful as possible
b. firm about insisting that a bug is not a “feature” if it should be fixed
c. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
d. All of the above
b. firm about insisting that a bug is not a “feature” if it should be fixed
c. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
d. All of the above
6.In which order
should tests be run?
a. the most
important tests first
b. the most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)
c. the easiest tests first(to give initial confidence)
d. the order they are thought of
b. the most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)
c. the easiest tests first(to give initial confidence)
d. the order they are thought of
7. The later in
the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to
fix. why?
a. the
documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is
doing.
b. wages are rising
c. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc
d. none of the above
b. wages are rising
c. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc
d. none of the above
8. Which is not
true-The black box tester
a. Sho
uld be able to
understand a functional specification or requirements document
b. should be able to understand the source code.
c. is highly motivated to find faults
d. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses
b. should be able to understand the source code.
c. is highly motivated to find faults
d. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses
9. A test design
technique is
a. a process for
selecting test cases
b. a process for determining expected outputs
c. a way to measure the quality of software
d. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done
b. a process for determining expected outputs
c. a way to measure the quality of software
d. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done
10. Testware(test
cases, test dataset)
a. needs
configuration management just like requirements, design and code
b. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
c. is needed only until the software is released into production or use
d. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released
software system
b. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
c. is needed only until the software is released into production or use
d. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released
software system
11. An incident
logging system
a only records
defects
b is of limited value
c is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents
d. should be used only by the test team.
b is of limited value
c is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents
d. should be used only by the test team.
12. Increasing
the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the
time needed for testing (the test phases) by:
a. reducing test
time
b. no change
c. increasing test time
d. can’t say
b. no change
c. increasing test time
d. can’t say
13. Coverage
measurement
a. is nothing to
do with testing
b. is a partial measure of test thoroughness
c. branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
d. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing
b. is a partial measure of test thoroughness
c. branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
d. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing
14. When should
you stop testing?
a. when time for
testing has run out.
b. when all planned tests have been run
c. when the test completion criteria have been met
d. when no faults have been found by the tests run
b. when all planned tests have been run
c. when the test completion criteria have been met
d. when no faults have been found by the tests run
15. Which of the
following is true?
a. Component
testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.
b. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software
c. the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was
d. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.
b. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software
c. the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was
d. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.
16. What is the
important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?
a. how well
you know a particular technique
b. the objective of the test
c. how appropriate the technique is for testing the application
d. whether there is a tool to support the technique
b. the objective of the test
c. how appropriate the technique is for testing the application
d. whether there is a tool to support the technique
17. If the pseudo
code below were a programming language ,how many tests are required to achieve
100% statement coverage?
1.If x=3 then
2. Display_messageX;
3. If y=2 then
4. Display_messageY;
5. Else
6. Display_messageZ;
7.Else
8. Display_messageZ;
2. Display_messageX;
3. If y=2 then
4. Display_messageY;
5. Else
6. Display_messageZ;
7.Else
8. Display_messageZ;
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
18. Using the
same code example as question 17,how many tests are required to achieve
100% branch/decision coverage?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
------------
19 Which of the
following is NOT a type of non-functional test?
a.
State-Transition
b. Usability
c. Performance
d. Security
b. Usability
c. Performance
d. Security
20. Which of the
following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?
a. State analysis
b. Coverage analysis
c. Dynamic analysis
d. Memory analysis
b. Coverage analysis
c. Dynamic analysis
d. Memory analysis
21. Which
of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?
a. IEEE829
b. IEEE610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
b. IEEE610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
22.which of the
following is the component test standard?
a. IEEE 829
b. IEEE 610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
b. IEEE 610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
23 which of the
following statements are true?
a. Faults in
program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.
b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.
24. Which of the
following is not the integration strategy?
a. Design based
b. Big-bang
c. Bottom-up
d. Top-down
b. Big-bang
c. Bottom-up
d. Top-down
25. Which of the
following is a black box design technique?
a. statement
testing
b. equivalence partitioning
c. error- guessing
d. usability testing
b. equivalence partitioning
c. error- guessing
d. usability testing
26. A program
with high cyclometic complexity is almost likely to be:
a. Large
b. Small
c. Difficult to write
d. Difficult to test
b. Small
c. Difficult to write
d. Difficult to test
27. Which of the
following is a static test?
a. code
inspection
b. coverage analysis
c. usability assessment
d. installation test
b. coverage analysis
c. usability assessment
d. installation test
28. Which of the
following is the odd one out?
a. white box
b. glass box
c. structural
d. functional
b. glass box
c. structural
d. functional
29. A program
validates a numeric field as follows:
values less than 10 are rejected, values
between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected
which of the following input values cover
all of the equivalence partitions?
a. 10,11,21
b. 3,20,21
c. 3,10,22
d. 10,21,22
b. 3,20,21
c. 3,10,22
d. 10,21,22
30. Using
the same specifications as question 29, which of the following covers the MOST
boundary values?
a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21
Answers of all
above Questions:
Question Answer
1. d
2. b
3. d
4. c
5. d
6. a
7. c
8. b
9. a
10. a
11. c
12. a
13. b
14. c
15. b
16. b
17. c
18. c
19. a
20. c
21. b
22. d
23. c
24. a
25. b
26. d
27. a
28. d
29. c
30. b
1. d
2. b
3. d
4. c
5. d
6. a
7. c
8. b
9. a
10. a
11. c
12. a
13. b
14. c
15. b
16. b
17. c
18. c
19. a
20. c
21. b
22. d
23. c
24. a
25. b
26. d
27. a
28. d
29. c
30. b
Other's
1. Verification is:
a. Checking that we are building the right system
b. Checking that we are building the system right
c. Performed by an independent test team
d. Making sure that it is what the user really wants
a. Checking that we are building the right system
b. Checking that we are building the system right
c. Performed by an independent test team
d. Making sure that it is what the user really wants
2. A regression test:
a. Will always be automated
b. Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected
c. Will help ensure changed areas of the software have not been affected
d. Can only be run during user acceptance testing
a. Will always be automated
b. Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected
c. Will help ensure changed areas of the software have not been affected
d. Can only be run during user acceptance testing
3. If an expected result is not
specified then:
a. We cannot run the test
b. It may be difficult to repeat the test
c. It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed
d. We cannot automate the user inputs
a. We cannot run the test
b. It may be difficult to repeat the test
c. It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed
d. We cannot automate the user inputs
4. Which of the following could be a
reason for a failure
1) Testing fault
2) Software fault
3) Design fault
4) Environment Fault
5) Documentation Fault
a. 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not
b. 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not
c. 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not
d. All of them are valid reasons for failure
1) Testing fault
2) Software fault
3) Design fault
4) Environment Fault
5) Documentation Fault
a. 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not
b. 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not
c. 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not
d. All of them are valid reasons for failure
5. Test are prioritized so that:
a. You shorten the time required for testing
b. You do the best testing in the time available
c. You do more effective testing
d. You find more faults
a. You shorten the time required for testing
b. You do the best testing in the time available
c. You do more effective testing
d. You find more faults
6. Which of the following is not a static testing technique
a. Error guessing
b. Walkthrough
c. Data flow analysis
d. Inspections
a. Error guessing
b. Walkthrough
c. Data flow analysis
d. Inspections
7. Which of the following statements
about component testing is not true?
a. Component testing should be performed by development
b. Component testing is also know as isolation or module testing
c. Component testing should have completion criteria planned
d. Component testing does not involve regression testing
a. Component testing should be performed by development
b. Component testing is also know as isolation or module testing
c. Component testing should have completion criteria planned
d. Component testing does not involve regression testing
8. During which test activity could
faults be found most cost effectively?
a. Execution
b. Design
c. Planning
d. Check Exit criteria completion
a. Execution
b. Design
c. Planning
d. Check Exit criteria completion
9. Which, in general, is the least
required skill of a good tester?
a. Being diplomatic
b. Able to write software
c. Having good attention to detail
d. Able to be relied on
a. Being diplomatic
b. Able to write software
c. Having good attention to detail
d. Able to be relied on
10. The purpose of requirement phase is
a. To freeze requirements
b. To understand user needs
c. To define the scope of testing
d. All of the above
a. To freeze requirements
b. To understand user needs
c. To define the scope of testing
d. All of the above
11. The process starting with the
terminal modules is called –
a. Top-down integration
b. Bottom-up integration
c. None of the above
d. Module integration
a. Top-down integration
b. Bottom-up integration
c. None of the above
d. Module integration
------------
12. The inputs for developing a test
plan are taken from
a. Project plan
b. Business plan
c. Support plan
d. None of the above
a. Project plan
b. Business plan
c. Support plan
d. None of the above
13. Function/Test matrix is a type of
a. Interim Test report
b. Final test report
c. Project status report
d. Management report
a. Interim Test report
b. Final test report
c. Project status report
d. Management report
14. Defect Management process does not
include
a. Defect prevention
b. Deliverable base-lining
c. Management reporting
d. None of the above
a. Defect prevention
b. Deliverable base-lining
c. Management reporting
d. None of the above
15. What is the difference between
testing software developed by contractor outside your country, versus testing
software developed by a contractor within your country?
a. Does not meet people needs
b. Cultural difference
c. Loss of control over reallocation of resources
d. Relinquishments of control
a. Does not meet people needs
b. Cultural difference
c. Loss of control over reallocation of resources
d. Relinquishments of control
16. Software testing accounts to what
percent of software development costs?
a. 10-20
b. 40-50
c. 70-80
d. 5-10
a. 10-20
b. 40-50
c. 70-80
d. 5-10
17. A reliable system will be one that:
a. Is unlikely to be completed on schedule
b. Is unlikely to cause a failure
c. Is likely to be fault-free
d. Is likely to be liked by the users
a. Is unlikely to be completed on schedule
b. Is unlikely to cause a failure
c. Is likely to be fault-free
d. Is likely to be liked by the users
18. How much testing is enough
a. This question is impossible to answer
b. The answer depends on the risks for your industry, contract and special requirements
c. The answer depends on the maturity of your developers
d. The answer should be standardized for the software development industry
a. This question is impossible to answer
b. The answer depends on the risks for your industry, contract and special requirements
c. The answer depends on the maturity of your developers
d. The answer should be standardized for the software development industry
19. Which of the following is not a
characteristic for Testability?
a. Operability
b. Observability
c. Simplicity
d. Robustness
a. Operability
b. Observability
c. Simplicity
d. Robustness
20. Cyclomatic Complexity method comes
under which testing method.
a. White box
b. Black box
c. Green box
d. Yellow box
a. White box
b. Black box
c. Green box
d. Yellow box
21. Which of these can be successfully
tested using Loop Testing methodology?
a. Simple Loops
b. Nested Loops
c. Concatenated Loops
d. All of the above
a. Simple Loops
b. Nested Loops
c. Concatenated Loops
d. All of the above
22. To test a function, the programmer
has to write a ______, which calls the function and passes it test data.
a. Stub
b. Driver
c. Proxy
d. None of the above
a. Stub
b. Driver
c. Proxy
d. None of the above
23. Equivalence partitioning is:
a. A black box testing technique used only by developers
b. A black box testing technique than can only be used during system testing
c. A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing
d. A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing
a. A black box testing technique used only by developers
b. A black box testing technique than can only be used during system testing
c. A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing
d. A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing
24. When a new testing tool is
purchased, it should be used first by:
a. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c. The independent testing team
d. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
a. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c. The independent testing team
d. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
25. Inspections can find all the
following except
a. Variables not defined in the code
b. Spelling and grammar faults in the documents
c. Requirements that have been omitted from the design documents
d. How much of the code has been covered
a. Variables not defined in the code
b. Spelling and grammar faults in the documents
c. Requirements that have been omitted from the design documents
d. How much of the code has been covered
1)– b 2)– b 3)– c 4)– d 5)– b 6)– a 7)– d 8 )– c 9) – b 10) – d
11) –b 12) – a 13) – c 14) – b 15) – b 16) – b 17) – b 18) – b 19) – d 20) – a
21) – d 22) – b 23) – c 24) – a 25) – d
11) –b 12) – a 13) – c 14) – b 15) – b 16) – b 17) – b 18) – b 19) – d 20) – a
21) – d 22) – b 23) – c 24) – a 25) – d
1) White Box Testing is not concern with
_________.
a.
Statement Coverage
b.
Decision Coverage
c. Cause
and Effect Coverage
d.
Multiple Condition Coverage
ANSWER:
Cause and Effect Coverage
2) Pesticide Paradox principle of testing says
that ______________.
a.
Clustering modules contain most of the defects.
b.
Finding and Fixing defects does not help if the system built is unstable.
c.
Testing is done differently in different context.
d. Test
cases needs to be regularly reviewed and
revised.
ANSWER:
Test cases needs to be regularly
reviewed and revised.
3) Requirement Engineering is not concern with
____________.
a.
Requirement Design
b.
Requirement Elicitation
c.
Requirement Analysis
d.
Requirement Documentation
ANSWER:
Requirement Design
4) When an expected result is not specified in
test case template then ___________.
a. We
cannot run the test.
b. It may
be difficult to repeat the test.
c. It may
be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.
d. We
cannot automate the user inputs.
ANSWER:
It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.
5) A test technique that involves testing with
various ranges of valid and invalid inputs of a particular module or component
functionality extensively is ___________.
a.
Gorilla Testing
b. Monkey
Testing
c. Agile
Testing
d.
Baseline Testing
ANSWER:
Gorilla Testing
6) End result of Software Requirement Analysis
is ________.
a.
Functional and Behavioral
b. Architectural
and Structural
c.
Usability and Reliability
d.
Algorithmic and Data Structure
ANSWER:
Functional and Behavioral
7) Bug status is set to postpone due to
________.
a.
Priority of that bug may low.
b. Lack
of time for the release.
c. The
bug may not be the major effect in the software.
d. Data
may be unavailable.
ANSWER:
Lack of time for the release
8) Which Testing is performed first?
a. Black
box testing
b. White
box testing
c.
Dynamic testing
d. Static
testing
ANSWER:
Static testing
9) Verification and Validation uses __________.
a.
Internal and External resources respectively.
b.
Internal resources only.
c.
External resources only.
d.
External and Internal resources respectively.
ANSWER:
Internal and External resources respectively
10) Testing beyond normal operational capacity is
__________.
a. Load
testing
b.
Performance testing
c. Stress
testing
d. All of
these.
ANSWER:
Stress testing
11) The expected results of the software is
_________________.
a. Only
important in system testing
b. Only
used in component testing
c. Most
useful when specified in advance
d.
Derived from the code
ANSWER:
Only important in system testing
12) Which is not true?
a.
Condition coverage is also known as Predicate Coverage
b. 100%
condition coverage does not guarantee 100% decision coverage.
c. Error
guessing has rules for testing.
d.
Predicate Coverage uses Boolean values.
ANSWER:
Error guessing has rules for testing.
13) Test cases are created in which phase?
a. Test
Specification
b. Test
Planning
c. Test
Requirement
d. Test
Configuration ANSWER: Test
Specification
14) Which of the following is / are not use for
the Usability Improvement of the website?
a. Card
sorting
b. Focus
Groups
c.
Heuristic Evaluation
d. None
of these
ANSWER:
None of these
15) A tester is executing a test to evaluate and
it complies with the user requirement for a certain field be populated by using
a dropdown box containing a list of values, at that time tester is performing
__________ .
a.
White-box Testing
b. Black-box
Testing
c. Load
Testing
d.
Regression Testing
ANSWER:
Black-box Testing
16) 7n test cases are generated in which case of
Boundary Value Analysis?
a. Worst
case
b. Roust
worst case
c.
Critical fault assumption
d. None
of these
ANSWER:
Roust worst case
17) Which testing focuses on heavily testing of
one particular module?
a.
Gorilla Testing
b. Fuzz
Testing
c.
Inter-Systems Testing
d.
Breadth Testing
ANSWER:
Gorilla Testing
18) Which testing cannot be performed on first
build of the software?
a.
Regression testing
b.
Retesting.
c. Sanity
testing
d. Only A
and B.
e. All of
these
ANSWER:
All of these
19) Which testing is performed with Planning and
Documentation?
a. Ad-hoc
testing
b. Monkey
testing
c. Fuzz
testing
d.
End-to-End testing
ANSWER: End-to-End
testing
20) Which is not true in context of Decision
Tree?
a. Used
in white box model.
b.
Perform well with large data
c.
Handles both categorical and numerical data
d. Random
forest tree is used for regression type problem
ANSWER:
Random forest tree is used for regression type problem
21. Which
of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?
A.
Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
B.
Logging the outcome of test execution.
C.
Assessing if more tests are needed.
D.
Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.
Ans: ‘B’
22.
Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to varying workloads to
measure and evaluate the performance behaviors and ability of the target and of
the test to continue to function properly under these different workloads.
A. Load
Testing
B.
Integration Testing
C. System
Testing
D.
Usability Testing
Ans: ‘A’
23.
Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in
the interaction between integrated components is :-
A. System
Level Testing
B.
Integration Level Testing
C. Unit
Level Testing
D.
Component Testing
Ans: ‘B’
24.
Static analysis is best described as:
A. The
analysis of batch programs.
B. The
reviewing of test plans.
C. The
analysis of program code.
D. The
use of black box testing.
Ans: ‘C’
25. One
of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric values.
Identify the Valid Equivalence class
A. BOOK
B. Book
C. Boo01k
D. book
Ans: ‘C’
26.
Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase
A. Test
Analysis and Design
B. Test
Implementation and execution
C. Test
Closure Activities
D.
Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Ans: ‘A’
27.
Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :-
A. Test
Analysis and Design
B. Test
Implementation and execution
C. Test
Closure Activities
D.
Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Ans: ‘B’
28. Which
of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
A.
operating systems
B. test
documentation
C. live
data
D. user
requirement document
Ans: ‘C’
29.
Handover of Test-ware is a part of which Phase
A. Test
Analysis and Design
B. Test
Planning and control
C. Test
Closure Activities
D.
Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Ans: ‘C’
30. The
Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is
turned on when the temperature is more than 21. Identify the Equivalence values
which belong to the same class.
A.
12,16,22
B.
24,27,17
C.
22,23,24
D.
14,15,19
Ans: ‘C’
31. The
approach/document used to make sure all the requirements are covered when
writing test cases
A. Test
Matrix
B.
Checklist
C. Test
bed
D.
Traceability Matrix
Ans: D
32.
Executing the same test case by giving the number of inputs on same build
called as
A.
Regression Testing
B.
ReTesting
C. Ad hoc
Testing
D. Sanity
Testing
Ans: B
33.
Control Charts is a statistical technique to assess, monitor, and maintain the
stability of a process.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
34. To
check whether we are developing the right product according to the customer
requirements are not. It is a static process
A.
Validation
B.
Verification
C.
Quality Assurance
D.
Quality Control
Ans: B
35. To
check whether we have developed the product according to the customer
requirements r not. It is a Dynamic process.
A.
Validation
B.
Verification
C.
Quality Assurance
D.
Quality Control
Ans: A
36. Staff
development plan describes how the skills and experience of the project team
members will be developed.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
37. It is
a set of levels that defines a testing maturity hierarchy
A. TIM
(Testing Improving Model)
B. TMM
(Testing Maturity Model)
C.
TQM(Total Quality Management)
Ans: B
38. A
Non-Functional Software testing done to check if the user interface is easy to
use and understand
A.
Usability Testing
B.
Security Testing
C. Unit
testing
D. Block
Box Testing
Ans: A
39. The
review and approved document (i.e. Test plan, System Requirement
Specification’s) is called as
A.
Delivery Document
B.
Baseline Document
C.
Checklist
Ans: B
40. What
are the Testing Levels?
A. Unit
Testing
B.
Integration Testing
C. System
Testing and Acceptance Testing.
D. All
the above
Ans: D
41. Cost
of quality = Prevention Cost + Appraisal cost + Failure cost
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
42. A
useful tool to visualize, clarify, link, identify, and classify possible cause
of a problem. This is also called as “fishbone diagram” what is this?
A. Pareto
Analysis
B.
Cause-and-Effect Diagram
Ans: B
43. It
measures the quality of processes used to create a quality product. It is a
system of management activities, It is a preventive process, It applies for
entire life cycle & Deals with Process.
A.
Validation
B.
Verification
C.
Quality Assurance
D.
Quality Control
Ans: C
44.
Variance from product specifications is called?
A. Report
B.
Requirement
C. Defect
Ans: C
45.
Verification is
A.
Process based
B.
Product based
Ans: A
46. White
box testing is not called as___________
A. Glass
box testing
B. Closed
box testing
C. OPen
box testing
D. Clear
box testing
Ans: B
47. Name
the events that will be analyzed, Count the named incidents, Rank the count by
frequency using a bar chart & Validate reasonableness of the analysis is
called as
A. Pareto
Analysis
B. Cause
and Effect Diagram
C. SWOT
Analysis
D. Pie
Charts
Ans: A
48.
Retesting of a single program or component after a change has been made?
A. Full
Regression Testing
B. Unit
Regression
C.
Regional Regression
D.
Retesting
Ans: B
49.
Requirement and Analysis, Design, Development or Coding, Testing and
Maintenance is called as Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
50. The
testing which is done by going thro' the code is known as,
A. Unit
Testing
B.
Blackbox testing
C. White
box Testing
D.
Regression testing
Ans: C
51.
Configuration Management Plan describes the Configuration Management procedures
and structures to be used.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
52.This
type of testing method attempts to find incorrect or missing functions, errors
in data structures or external database access, interface errors, Performance
errors and initialization and Termination errors. It is called as
A. White
Box Testing
B. Grey
Box Testing
C. Black
Box Testing
D. Open
Box Testing
Ans: C
53. Phase
Definition. It will come under
A. CMM
Level 1
B. CMM
Level 2
C. None
Ans: B
54.
Software testing which is done without planning and Documentation is known as
A. adHoc
Testing
B. Unit
Testing
C.
Regression testing
D.
Functional testing.
Ans: A
55.
Acceptance testing is known as
A. Beta
Testing
B.
Greybox testing
C. Test
Automation
D. White
box testing
Ans: A
56.
Retesting the entire application after a change has been made called as?
A. Full
Regression Testing
B. Unit
Regression
C.
Regional Regression
D.
Retesting
Ans: A
57.
Boundary value analysis belongs to which testing method?
A. Black
Box testing
B. White
Box testing
Ans: A
58. It
measures the quality of a product It is a specific part of the QA procedure, It
is a corrective process, It applies for particular product & Deals with the
product.
A.
Validation
B.
Verification
C.
Quality Assurance
D.
Quality Control
Ans: D
59. What
are the Types of Integration Testing?
A. Big
Bang Testing
B. Bottom
Up Testing
C. Top
Down Testing
D. All
the above
Ans: D
60.
Product Risk affects The quality or performance of the software.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
61. A
metric used to measure the characteristic of documentation and code called as
A.
Process metric
B.
Product Metric
C. Test
metrics
Ans: B
62. Which
is non-functional software testing?
A. Unit
Testing
B. Block
box testing
C.
Performance Testing
D.
Regression testing
Ans: C
63. The
process that deals with the technical and management issues of software
development called as?
A.
Delivery Process
B.
Testing Process
C.
Software Process
Ans: C
64.
Executing the same test case on a modified build called as
A.
Regression Testing
B.
Retesting
C. Ad hoc
Testing
D. Sanity
Testing
Ans: A
65. Which
is Black-Box Testing method?
A.
equivalence partitioning
B. code
coverage
C. fault
injection
Ans: A
66.
Business Risk affects The Organization developing or Procuring the software.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
67.
Stratification is a Technique used to analyze/divide a universe of data into
homogeneous groups(stratA..
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
68.
Automation Testing should be done before starting Manual testing.
Is the
above statement correct?
A. Yes
B. No
Ans: B
69.
Earlier a defect is found the cheaper it is to fix it.
Is the
above statement correct?
A. Yes
B. No
Ans: A
70.
Informing to the developer which bug to be fix first is called as
A.
Severity
B.
Priority
C. Fix
ability
D.
Traceability
Ans: B
71.
Software Testing is a process of evaluating a system by manual or automatic
means and verify that it satisfies specified requirements or identity
differences between expected and actual results.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
72.
Retesting modules connected to the program or component after a change has been
made?
A. Full
Regression Testing
B. Unit
Regression
C.
Regional Regression
D.
Retesting.
Ans: C
73. An
Important metric is the number of defects found in internal testing compared to
the defects found in customer tests, Status of test activities against the
plan, Test coverage achieved so far, comes under
A.
Process Metric
B.
Product Metric
C. Test
Metric
Ans: C
74. Alpha
testing will be done at,
A. User's
site
B.
Developers' site
Ans: B
75. SPICE
Means
A.
Software Process Improvement and Capability Determination
B.
Software Process Improvement and Compatibility Determination.
C.
Software Process Invention and Compatibility Determination.
D.
Software Process Improvement and Control Determination
Ans: A
76.
Requirements Specification, Planning, Test case Design, Execution,
Bug
Reporting & Maintenance This Life Cycle comes Under
A. SDLC
B. STLC
C. SQLC
D. BLC
Ans: B
77. It
provides a set of levels and an assessment model, and presents a set of
recommended practices that allow organizations to improve their testing
processes.
A. TIM
(Testing Improving Model)
B. TMM
(Testing Maturity Model)
C.
TQM(Total Quality Management)
Ans: A
78.
Standards and procedures for managing changes in an evolving software product
is called?
A.
Confirmation Management
B.
Confederation Mangement
C.
Configuration Management
D.
Compartability Management
Ans: C
79. Path
Tested = Number of Path Tested / Total Number of Paths
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
80. This
Testing Technique examines the basic program structure and it derives the test
data from the program logic; Ensuring that all statements and conditions
executed at least once. It is called as
A. Block
box Testing
B. White
box Testing
C. Grey
Box Testing
D. Closed
Box Testing
Ans: B
81. This
type of test include, how well the user will be able to understand and interact
with the system?
A.
Usability Testing
B. User
Acceptance Testing
C. Alpha
Testing
D. Beta
Testing.
Ans: A
82.
Defects generally fall into the following categories?
A. WRONG
B.
MISSING
C. EXTRA
D. All
the above
Ans: D
83. What
is correct Software Process Cycle?
A.
Plan(P)------>Check(C)------>Act(A)----->Do(D)
B.
Plan(P)------>Do(D)------>Check(C)----->Act(A)
C.
Plan(P)------>Do(D)------>Act(A)----->Check(C)
Ans: B
84.
Conducted to validate that the application, database, and network they may be
running on can handle projected volumes of users and data effectively. The test
is conducted jointly by developers, testers, DBA’s and network associates after
the system Testing called as
A.
Functional Testing
B.
Stress/Load Testing
C.
Recovery Testing
D.
Integration Testing
Ans: B
85.
Maintenance Plan predicts the maintenance requirements of the system,
maintenance costs and effort required
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
86. Beta
testing will be done by
A.
Developer
B. User
C. Tester
Ans: B
87.
Validation plan describes the approach ,resources and schedule used for system
validation
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
88.
Integration, It will come under
A. CMM
Level 1
B. CMM
Level 3
C. CMM
Level 2
D. None
Ans: B
89. Types
of quality tools are Problem Identification Tools and Problem Analysis Tools.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
90. Which
Software Development Life cycle model will require to start Testing Activities
when starting development activities itself
A. Water
falls model
B. Spiral
Model
C.
V-model
D. Linear
model
Ans: C
91. A
metric used to measure the characteristic of the methods, Techniques and tools
employed in developing, implementing and maintaining the software system called
as
A.
Process metric
B.
Product Metric
C. Test
metrics
Ans: A
92. Check
Sheet(Checklist. is considered a simple , but powerful statistical tool because
it differentiates between two extremes.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
93.
Application should be stable. Clear Design and Flow of the application is
needed for Automation testing.
A. False
B. True
Ans: B
94.
Quality plan describes the quality procedures and standards that will be used
in a project.
A. False
B. True
Ans: B
95. How
severely the bug is effecting the application is called as
A.
Severity
B.
Priority
C. Fix
ability
D.
Traceability
Ans: A
96.
Project Risk affects The Schedule or Resources.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
97. The
name of the testing which is done to make sure the existing features are not
affected by new changes
A.
Recursive testing
B.
Whitebox testing
C. Unit
testing
D.
Regression testing
Ans: D
98.
Management and Measurement, It will come under
A. CMM
Level 1
B. CMM
Level 3
C. CMM
Level 4
D. CMM
Level 2
Ans: C
99. AdHoc
testing is a part of
A. Unit
Testing
B.
Regression Tesing
C.
Exploratory Testing
D.
Performance Testing
Ans: C
100. Cost
of Production = Right The First time cost(RTF. + Cost of Quality.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
101.
------------- means under what test environment(Hardware, software set up. the
application will run smoothly
A. Test
Bed
B.
Checkpoint
C. Code
Walk through
D.
Checklist
Ans: A
102. TQM
represents
A. Tool
Quality Management
B. Test
Quality Manager
C. Total
Quality Management
D. Total
Quality Manager
Ans: C
103.
Optimization, Defect Prevention, and Quality Control. Its come under the
A. CMM
Level 2
B. CMM
Level 3
C. CMM
Level 4
D. CMM
Level5
Ans: D
104. Unit
Testing will be done by
A.
Testers
B. End
Users
C.
Customer
D.
Developers
Ans: D
105. Beta
testing will be done at
A. User
place
B.
Developers place
Ans: A
106. A
Plan to overcome the risk called as
A.
Migration Plan
B. Master
plan
C.
Maintenance plan
D.
Mitigation Plan
Ans: D
Q1.
Impact Analysis helps to decide:
A.
Different Tools to perform Regression Testing
B.
Exit Criteria
C.
How many more test cases need to written
D.
How much regression testing should be done
Q2.
Determine the statement which holds true in case of Exploratory Testing:
A.
It starts the execution only when the design
gets finalized
B.
It involves simultaneous design of the test and
execution
C.
It starts the execution only when the design
gets renewed
D.
It starts the execution only when the design gets
amended
Q3.Equivalence
partitioning is:
A.A black box testing technique used only by developers
B. A black box testing technique than can only be used during
system testing
C. A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of
testing
D.A white box testing technique appropriate for component
testing
Q4. Which
of the following would be a valid measure of test progress?
A.
Number of undetected defects
B.
Number of test cases not yet executed
C.
Total number of defects in the product
D.
Effort required to fix all defects
Q5. Which
of the following is not part of performance testing?
A.
Measuring response time
B.
Measuring transaction rates
C.
Recovery testing
D.
Simulating many users
E.Generating many transactions
Q6. A
test harness is a:
A.
A high level document describing the principles,
approach and major objectives of the organization regarding testing
B.
A distance set of test activities collected
into a manageable phase of a project
C.
A test environment comprised of stubs and
drives needed to conduct a test
D.
A set of several test cases for a component or
system under test
Q7. The
main focus of acceptance testing is:
A.
finding faults in the system
B.
ensuring that the system is acceptable to all
users
C.
testing the system with other systems
D.
testing for a business perspective
E.testing by an independent test team
Q8.
Unreachable code would best be found using:
A.
code reviews
B.
code inspections
C.
a coverage tool
D.
a static analysis tool
Q9. What
is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan?
A.
to know when a specific test has finished its
execution
B.
to ensure that the test case specification is
complete
C.
to set the criteria used in generating test
inputs
D.
to know when test planning is complete
E.to plan when to stop testing
Q10.
Before launching a software which testing is to be done in-house?
A.
Beta
B.
Gamma
C.
Alpha
D.
None of the above
Q11. In
which activity of the Fundamental Test Process is the test environment set up?
A.
Test implementation and execution.
B.
Test planning and control
C.
Test analysis and design
D.
Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Q12.The
difference between re-testing and regression testing is:
A.
re-testing is running a test again; regression
testing looks for unexpected side effects
B.
re-testing looks for unexpected side effects;
regression testing is repeating those tests
C.
re-testing is done after faults are fixed;
regression testing is done earlier
D.
re-testing uses different environments,
regression testing uses the same environment
E.re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done
by independent testers
Q13. Statement
Coverage will not check for the following:
A.
Missing Statements
B.
Unused Branches
C.
Dead Code
D.
Unused Statement
Q14. Beta
testing is:
A.
Performed by customers at their own site
B.
Performed by customers at their software
developer’s site
C.
Performed by an independent test team
D.
Useful to test bespoke software
E.Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
Q15. Which
of the following is NOT a black box technique?
A.
Equivalence partitioning
B.
State transition testing
C.
Linear code sequence and jump
D.
Syntax testing
E.Boundary value analysis
Q16. Which
testing phase tests individual software modules combined together as a group?
A.
Module testing
B.
Integration testing
C.
White Box testing
D.
Software testing
Q17. Which
is NOT true - The black box tester:
A.
should be able to understand a functional
specification or requirements document
B.
should be able to understand the source code
C.
is highly motivated to find faults
D.
is creative to find the system’s weaknesses
Q18. Which
of the following is a major task of test planning?
A.
Determining the test approach
B.
Preparing test specifications
C.
Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
D.
Measuring and analyzing results
Q19. Which
of the following is NOT a static testing technique?
A.
Error guessing
B.
Walkthrough
C.
Data flow analysis
D.
Inspections